TNPSC Model Test
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இலக்கணம்
இலக்கணம்
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புணர்ச்சி
சொல் வகைகள்
வேற்றுமை உருபுகள்
விகுதிகள்
எழுத்தியல்
பகுபத உறுப்பிலக்கணம்
வழு கண்டறிதல்
வாக்கிய வகைகள்
சந்தி விதிகள்
காலங்கள் மற்றும் வினைமுற்று
பொது அறிவு
பொது அறிவு
▼
நாடுகள் மற்றும் தலைநகரங்கள்
மாநிலங்கள் மற்றும் தலைநகரங்கள்
முக்கிய தினங்கள்
நாடுகள் மற்றும் நாணயங்கள்
இந்திய விண்வெளி நிலையங்கள்
உலக விண்வெளி நிலையங்கள்
முக்கிய அணைகள்
பாரம்பரிய (செவ்வியல்) நடனங்கள்
நாட்டுப்புற நடனங்கள்
சர்வதேச அமைப்புகள் மற்றும் அவற்றின் தலைமையகங்கள்
தேசியப் பூங்காக்கள்
வனவிலங்கு சரணாலயங்கள்
முக்கிய விளையாட்டு அரங்கங்கள்
முக்கிய விமான நிலையங்கள்
கோப்பைகள் மற்றும் விருதுகள்
முக்கிய தலைப்புகள்
முக்கிய தலைப்புகள்
▼
காலவரிசை
வம்சங்கள் மற்றும் தலைநகரங்கள்
முக்கிய போர்கள்
இந்திய விடுதலை இயக்கம்
ஆங்கிலேயர் சட்டங்கள்
முக்கிய அரசியலமைப்பு சட்டப்பிரிவுகள்
அரசியலமைப்பு திருத்தங்கள்
அட்டவணைகள்
அரசியலமைப்பு அமைப்புகள்
முக்கிய குழுக்கள்
இந்தியாவின் ஆறுகள்
மலைத்தொடர்கள்
கணவாய்கள்
முக்கிய ஏரிகள்
முக்கிய துறைமுகங்கள்
பொது அறிவியல்
பொது அறிவியல்
▼
மின்சாரம் மற்றும் மின்காந்தவியல்
இயக்கவியல்
ஒளியியல்
வெப்பவியல்
அறிவியல் கருவிகள் மற்றும் SI அலகுகள்
அமிலம் – காரம் – உப்பு
தனிமங்கள் மற்றும் தனிம அட்டவணை
அணு அமைப்பு
வேதிவினைகள்
தினசரி வாழ்க்கை வேதியியல்
மனித உடலியல்
செல் மற்றும் மரபியல்
மனித நோய்கள் மற்றும் தடுப்பூசிகள்
ஊட்டச்சத்து மற்றும் வைட்டமின்கள்
சுற்றுச்சூழல் மற்றும் உயிரிப்பன்மை
Combined Technical Services
Combined Technical Services
▼
Civil Engineering
Mechanical Engineering
Electrical & Electronics Engineering
Electronics & Communication Engineering
Computer Science / IT
Agriculture
Horticulture
Architecture
Chemistry
Zoology
Botany
Commerce
Library Science
Statistics
Mathematics
Geology
Fisheries
Textile Technology
TN Group Exams Quiz
முகப்பு/Home
என் தேர்வு முடிவுகள்/My score
MCQ தேர்வு
Q1
Why did the Cricket go to the Ant?
A
To sing
B
To ask for food
C
To play
D
To sleep
Q2
“Dreams” poem encourages us to?
A
Sleep
B
Ignore goals
C
Follow dreams
D
Play games
Q3
Which word is an adjective in the sentence: “The ancient tree provided generous shade to the travellers”?
A
Tree
B
Provided
C
Ancient
D
Travellers
Q4
In “Sea Turtles”, why is protecting nesting beaches especially important for sea turtles?
A
They cannot swim in deep water
B
They return to land to lay their eggs
C
They feed only on beach vegetation
D
They build permanent nests on beaches
Q5
In “The Apple Tree and the Farmer”, the conflict is primarily based on:
A
Competition between two farmers
B
The farmer’s changing attitude towards the usefulness of the tree
C
A dispute between animals
D
A disagreement about weather
Q6
What important caution is suggested by the concept of a “cyber friend”?
A
Online identities may not always be what they appear to be
B
Online communication is always completely safe
C
Technology should never be used
D
Friends can only be made in person
Q7
Choose the correct tense: “By the time the train arrived, the passengers _____ for an hour.”
A
wait
B
are waiting
C
had been waiting
D
will wait
Q8
In the poem “Trees”, trees are best understood as symbols of:
A
War and destruction
B
Life, shelter and continuity
C
Technology and progress
D
Fear and loneliness
Q9
What is the most appropriate message conveyed by “When the Trees Walked”?
A
Nature should always be controlled by humans
B
Nature can inspire imagination and deeper understanding
C
Trees are dangerous to human beings
D
Forests exist only for economic purposes
Q10
In “Gulliver’s Travels”, Gulliver’s encounters with unfamiliar societies mainly enable the author to:
A
Describe only imaginary animals
B
Critically examine human society through satire
C
Teach navigation techniques
D
Promote military expansion
Q11
The Cricket suffered during?
A
Summer
B
Winter
C
Spring
D
Autumn
Q12
“He hastily wished her good day” – who is “he”?
A
Cricket
B
Ant
C
Farmer
D
Bird
Q13
In “When the Trees Walked”, the unusual idea of trees “walking” primarily helps the reader understand:
A
The literal movement of trees
B
The imagination and wonder associated with nature
C
The scientific classification of trees
D
The destruction of forests
Q14
Which pronoun correctly replaces the underlined phrase? “The children completed the project by **the children themselves**.”
A
ourselves
B
yourselves
C
themselves
D
itself
Q15
What is the theme of “The Ant and the Cricket”?
A
Nature
B
Hard work vs laziness
C
Friendship
D
Travel
Q16
What did the Ant do in summer?
A
Slept
B
Worked and saved food
C
Sang
D
Played
Q17
Choose the correct active form: “The letter was written by Ravi.”
A
Ravi writes the letter.
B
Ravi wrote the letter.
C
Ravi had written the letter.
D
Ravi is writing the letter.
Q18
What did the Cricket do in summer?
A
Worked hard
B
Sang happily
C
Slept
D
Studied
Q19
In “A Journey to the Hills”, the journey can be understood not only as physical travel but also as:
A
An exploration of nature and personal experience
B
A military expedition
C
A business negotiation
D
A political campaign
Q20
Who is the poet of the poem “Dreams”?
A
Langston Hughes
B
Robert Frost
C
William Blake
D
Rabindranath Tagore
Q21
Choose the correct passive form: “The students completed the project.”
A
The project completed the students.
B
The project was completed by the students.
C
The project is completed by the students.
D
The students were completed by the project.
Q22
“Hold fast” means?
A
Let go
B
Hold tightly
C
Run away
D
Break
Q23
In “The Rainbow”, the rainbow is primarily used as an image of:
A
Beauty and wonder in nature
B
Industrial development
C
Fear of storms
D
Human conflict
Q24
Who wrote “The Ant and the Cricket”?
A
Aesop
B
Oliver Goldsmith
C
William Wordsworth
D
John Keats
Q25
In “The Attic”, an attic can symbolically represent:
A
Only a place for modern technology
B
Memory, forgotten objects and the past
C
A place for public meetings
D
A sports ground
Q26
Choose the sentence in which the underlined noun is used as an abstract noun.
A
The **child** opened the window.
B
The **team** won the match.
C
Her **honesty** impressed everyone.
D
The **garden** looked beautiful.
Q27
Which sentence uses a preposition correctly?
A
She is good in mathematics.
B
She is good at mathematics.
C
She is good on mathematics.
D
She is good by mathematics.
Q28
The Cricket did not prepare for?
A
Summer
B
Winter
C
Rain
D
Spring
Q29
In “The New Start”, the phrase “new start” most strongly suggests:
A
Repeating past mistakes
B
Beginning again with renewed hope or determination
C
Ending all relationships
D
Rejecting every opportunity
Q30
Which statement best expresses the relationship between rain and rainbow in the poem “The Rainbow”?
A
Rain destroys all beauty
B
The rain provides the natural setting from which the rainbow emerges
C
Rain and rainbow are unrelated
D
The rainbow causes the rain
Q31
Which sentence contains an adjective used to describe a pronoun?
A
They arrived early.
B
She bought a beautiful dress.
C
He runs quickly.
D
We walked slowly.
Q32
In “Learning the Game”, the title most strongly suggests that the protagonist learns:
A
Only the technical rules of a sport
B
Life lessons through participation and experience
C
How to avoid competition
D
How to become a spectator
Q33
Why is satire particularly effective in “Gulliver’s Travels”?
A
It presents criticism indirectly through imaginary situations
B
It avoids all social criticism
C
It focuses only on historical facts
D
It uses no contrast between societies
Q34
The most important lesson suggested by the idea of seven seeds is that:
A
Immediate success is always guaranteed
B
Patience and effort can lead to growth
C
Seeds have no value without money
D
Failure should always be avoided
Q35
The phrase “learning the game” can be interpreted figuratively as learning:
A
Only a set of written instructions
B
How to face challenges and cooperate with others
C
How to repair sports equipment
D
How to become a referee
Q36
What happens when dreams go?
A
Life is happy
B
Life is empty
C
Life is rich
D
Life is easy
Q37
Choose the grammatically correct sentence.
A
Neither of the boys have completed his work.
B
Neither of the boys has completed his work.
C
Neither of the boys have completed their works.
D
Neither boys has completed his work.
Q38
In “A Visitor from Distant Lands”, the idea of a visitor from another place primarily develops the theme of:
A
Cultural curiosity and interaction
B
Fear of education
C
Competition in sports
D
Life in cities
Q39
The tone of “Dreams” is?
A
Funny
B
Motivational
C
Angry
D
Sad
Q40
The poem “Nature” primarily encourages the reader to:
A
Ignore the natural world
B
Observe and appreciate the beauty and significance of nature
C
Replace nature with technology
D
Fear all natural phenomena
Q41
The Ant represents?
A
Laziness
B
Hard work
C
Fear
D
Anger
Q42
Which sentence contains a verb in the past perfect tense?
A
She cooks dinner every day.
B
She cooked dinner yesterday.
C
She had cooked dinner before the guests arrived.
D
She will cook dinner tomorrow.
Q43
What is the central idea emphasized through “The Crocodile”?
A
The beauty of rivers
B
The deceptive and dangerous nature of the crocodile
C
The importance of farming
D
The friendship between animals
Q44
Which sentence contains a correctly formed passive construction in the present perfect tense?
A
The work has completed by them.
B
The work has been completed by them.
C
The work had been completed by them.
D
The work is being completed by them.
Q45
In “I Dream of Spices”, spices are presented not merely as food ingredients but also as:
A
Symbols connected with culture, memory and imagination
B
Symbols of industrialization
C
Objects representing modern technology
D
Signs of political power
Q46
“Life is a broken-winged bird” is an example of?
A
Simile
B
Metaphor
C
Alliteration
D
Personification
Q47
The Ant refused to help because?
A
He was busy
B
Cricket was lazy
C
He was angry
D
He was tired
Q48
Choose the correct conjunction: “He was tired, _____ he continued working.”
A
because
B
but
C
unless
D
so that
Q49
“Spices of India” is most closely connected with India’s:
A
Maritime climate alone
B
Cultural heritage and geographical diversity
C
Modern sports culture
D
Industrial development alone
Q50
In “Owlie”, the title character is significant mainly because the story highlights:
A
Fear of darkness
B
Human dependence on machines
C
The relationship between humans and nature
D
The dangers of travelling
Q51
“Life is a barren field” means?
A
Full of crops
B
Empty and lifeless
C
Green land
D
Happy land
Q52
Which statement best connects the major themes across the syllabus texts?
A
Human life is presented separately from nature and society
B
Nature, cooperation, imagination, experience and responsible choices recur as important themes
C
All texts focus exclusively on grammar
D
The texts mainly encourage competition and individual success
Q53
In “The Magic Pencil”, the magical element mainly helps communicate the importance of:
A
Imagination and the consequences of one’s choices
B
Physical strength
C
Material wealth
D
Competition in education
Q54
Choose the correct indirect speech: She said, “I will finish the work tomorrow.”
A
She said that she would finish the work the next day.
B
She said that she will finish the work tomorrow.
C
She said that I would finish the work tomorrow.
D
She says that she would finish the work the next day.
Q55
What happens to a broken-winged bird?
A
It flies high
B
It cannot fly
C
It sings
D
It runs
Q56
The “Wandering Singers” are best associated with the idea of:
A
Permanent settlement
B
Movement, music and freedom
C
Industrial labour
D
Political administration
Q57
Which adaptation most directly helps sea turtles survive in the marine environment?
A
Webbed wings
B
Gills
C
Streamlined bodies and flipper-like limbs
D
Thick fur
Q58
The Cricket represents?
A
Hard work
B
Laziness
C
Courage
D
Wisdom
Q59
What lesson does the Ant teach?
A
Be lazy
B
Work hard and save
C
Sing always
D
Ignore others
Q60
The title “A Visitor from Distant Lands” most strongly suggests that the narrative involves:
A
Only geographical description
B
An encounter with someone or something unfamiliar
C
A historical war
D
A scientific experiment
Q61
Identify the sentence containing a transitive verb.
A
The baby slept peacefully.
B
The birds flew away.
C
She opened the door.
D
The sun shines brightly.
Q62
Identify the sentence with the correct use of articles.
A
He is an honest man.
B
He is a honest man.
C
He is the honest man by nature.
D
He is an honesty man.
Q63
Main message of both poems is?
A
Be lazy
B
Value dreams and hard work
C
Ignore life
D
Play always
Q64
Which sentence uses the present perfect tense correctly?
A
I have visited Chennai last year.
B
I have visited Chennai several times.
C
I am visiting Chennai yesterday.
D
I had visit Chennai several times.
Q65
“For if dreams die” suggests?
A
Dreams are useless
B
Dreams are important
C
Dreams are easy
D
Dreams are fun
Q66
Identify the adverb in the sentence: “The players worked extremely hard during the final match.”
A
Players
B
Worked
C
Extremely
D
Final
Q67
What kind of poem is “Dreams”?
A
Narrative
B
Lyric
C
Drama
D
Epic
Q68
In “The Seven Seeds”, the seeds can best be interpreted as symbols of:
A
Waste and destruction
B
Possibility, growth and perseverance
C
Wealth alone
D
Competition between farmers
Q69
The central message of the poem “Team Work” is that success often depends on:
A
Individual fame
B
Competition without cooperation
C
Cooperation and shared responsibility
D
Avoiding difficult tasks
Q70
In “Dreams”, life without dreams is compared to?
A
Flying bird
B
Broken-winged bird
C
River
D
Mountain
Q71
“Hold fast to dreams” means?
A
Forget dreams
B
Hold dreams tightly
C
Avoid dreams
D
Break dreams
Q72
Choose the correct indirect speech: Ravi said, “I am tired.”
A
Ravi said that I am tired.
B
Ravi said that he was tired.
C
Ravi said that he is tired.
D
Ravi says that he was tired.
Q73
Choose the correct question tag: “She rarely misses the class, _____?”
A
does she?
B
doesn’t she?
C
is she?
D
isn’t she?
Q74
Choose the correct indirect form: The teacher said to the students, “Do not waste your time.”
A
The teacher told the students not to waste their time.
B
The teacher said the students do not waste your time.
C
The teacher told the students do not waste their time.
D
The teacher asked the students that they should not waste time.
Q75
In “The Mystery of the Cyber Friend”, the central mystery is closely connected with:
A
An unknown person encountered through digital communication
B
A lost ancient manuscript
C
A journey through a forest
D
A sports competition
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