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MCQ தேர்வு
Q1
Which statement correctly describes a buffer solution?
A
It resists only dilution
B
It resists changes in pH upon addition of small amounts of acid or base
C
It always has pH exactly equal to 7
D
It contains only a strong acid and strong base
Q2
The oxidation state of chromium in K2Cr2O7 is:
A
+2
B
+3
C
+6
D
+7
Q3
Which orbital has a node passing through the nucleus?
A
1s
B
2s
C
2p
D
3s
Q4
Which condition favors the formation of ammonia in the Haber process?
A
High temperature and low pressure
B
Low temperature and high pressure
C
High temperature and high pressure
D
Low temperature and low pressure
Q5
For a reaction whose rate constant doubles when temperature rises by 10°C, the temperature coefficient is approximately:
A
0.5
B
1
C
2
D
10
Q6
Which law explains the increase in solubility of gases in liquids with increasing pressure?
A
Raoult’s law
B
Henry’s law
C
Boyle’s law
D
Graham’s law
Q7
The major reason for the relatively high acidity of phenol compared with ethanol is:
A
Higher molecular mass of phenol
B
Resonance stabilization of phenoxide ion
C
Presence of hydrogen bonding only
D
Greater solubility of phenol
Q8
A Lewis acid is best described as a species that:
A
Donates a proton
B
Accepts an electron pair
C
Donates an electron pair
D
Produces OH− exclusively
Q9
Which thermodynamic quantity is a state function?
A
Work
B
Heat
C
Enthalpy
D
Path length
Q10
In mass spectrometry, the molecular ion peak generally provides information about:
A
Melting point only
B
Molecular mass
C
Boiling point only
D
pH
Q11
Which element has the highest electronegativity on the Pauling scale?
A
Oxygen
B
Fluorine
C
Chlorine
D
Nitrogen
Q12
The strongest acid among the following hydrogen halides in aqueous solution is:
A
HF
B
HCl
C
HBr
D
HI
Q13
Which electrode is used as the reference electrode with a standard potential of exactly zero volts?
A
Calomel electrode
B
Standard hydrogen electrode
C
Glass electrode
D
Quinhydrone electrode
Q14
According to the Born-Haber cycle, which quantity is primarily responsible for the high lattice enthalpy of an ionic solid?
A
Low ionization energy of the metal
B
Strong electrostatic attraction between oppositely charged ions
C
High boiling point of the compound
D
Weak electron affinity of the anion
Q15
Which polymer contains predominantly peptide linkages?
A
Nylon-6,6
B
Teflon
C
Natural rubber
D
Polyethylene
Q16
Which colligative property is most suitable for determining the molar mass of proteins?
A
Relative lowering of vapour pressure
B
Elevation of boiling point
C
Depression of freezing point
D
Osmotic pressure
Q17
Which factor most directly increases the rate of a chemical reaction according to collision theory?
A
Decrease in effective collisions
B
Increase in activation energy
C
Increase in frequency of effective collisions
D
Decrease in temperature
Q18
Which phenomenon is primarily responsible for the Tyndall effect?
A
Absorption of radiation
B
Scattering of light by colloidal particles
C
Refraction only
D
Ionization of molecules
Q19
For a first-order reaction, the half-life is:
A
Directly proportional to initial concentration
B
Inversely proportional to initial concentration
C
Independent of initial concentration
D
Proportional to the square of initial concentration
Q20
Which acid-base theory defines an acid as a proton donor?
A
Arrhenius theory
B
Brønsted-Lowry theory
C
Lewis theory
D
Lux-Flood theory
Q21
Which reagent is most suitable for distinguishing aldehydes from ketones?
A
Tollens reagent
B
NaOH
C
H2SO4
D
Sodium chloride
Q22
The geometrical shape of [Ni(CN)4]2− is generally:
A
Tetrahedral
B
Square planar
C
Trigonal planar
D
Octahedral
Q23
The magnetic moment of a d5 high-spin ion is approximately:
A
1.73 BM
B
2.83 BM
C
3.87 BM
D
5.92 BM
Q24
Which intermediate is formed during electrophilic aromatic substitution of benzene?
A
Carbanion
B
Arenium ion
C
Carbene
D
Nitrene
Q25
Which catalyst is traditionally used in the Haber process?
A
Fe
B
V2O5
C
Ni
D
Pt
Q26
Which colloidal system consists of a gas dispersed in a liquid?
A
Foam
B
Gel
C
Emulsion
D
Aerosol
Q27
Which of the following compounds gives a positive iodoform test?
A
Methanol
B
Ethanol
C
Propanol
D
Methanoic acid
Q28
The number of unpaired electrons in Fe3+ in its free gaseous state is:
A
1
B
3
C
5
D
6
Q29
The anomalously high boiling point of water compared with H2S is primarily due to:
A
Ionic bonding
B
Hydrogen bonding
C
Van der Waals forces only
D
Coordinate bonding
Q30
The strongest reducing agent among alkali metals in aqueous solution is generally:
A
Li
B
Na
C
K
D
Cs
Q31
The hybridization of the central atom in XeF4 is:
A
sp3
B
sp3d
C
sp3d2
D
dsp2
Q32
Which quantum number determines the orientation of an orbital in space?
A
Principal quantum number
B
Azimuthal quantum number
C
Magnetic quantum number
D
Spin quantum number
Q33
Which ligand is capable of forming a chelate ring with a metal ion?
A
NH3
B
Cl−
C
en
D
CN−
Q34
Which of the following species has the highest bond order according to molecular orbital theory?
A
O2
B
O2+
C
O2−
D
O2²−
Q35
Which of the following has the greatest acidic strength?
A
Ethanol
B
Phenol
C
Acetic acid
D
Water
Q36
Which of the following is the correct order of increasing first ionization energy?
A
Na < Mg < Al < Si
B
Al < Mg < Na < Si
C
Na < Al < Mg < Si
D
Si < Mg < Al < Na
Q37
The pH of a 0.001 M strong monoprotic acid is approximately:
A
1
B
2
C
3
D
4
Q38
Which of the following compounds has the highest lattice energy?
A
NaCl
B
KCl
C
MgO
D
CsCl
Q39
Which compound exhibits the strongest intermolecular hydrogen bonding?
A
CH4
B
NH3
C
H2O
D
PH3
Q40
In an electrochemical cell, the standard cell potential is related to the standard Gibbs energy change by:
A
ΔG° = nFE°
B
ΔG° = −nFE°
C
ΔG° = −FE°/n
D
ΔG° = n/E°
Q41
Which analytical technique is most directly based on absorption of electromagnetic radiation by molecular bonds?
A
IR spectroscopy
B
Mass spectrometry
C
Gravimetry
D
Potentiometry
Q42
The ozone molecule is diamagnetic because:
A
It has no oxygen atoms
B
All electrons are paired in its molecular orbital description
C
It contains only sigma bonds
D
It is an ionic molecule
Q43
According to Hess’s law, the enthalpy change of an overall reaction is:
A
Dependent only on reaction time
B
Independent of the reaction pathway
C
Always positive
D
Always zero
Q44
Which chromatography technique is particularly useful for separating volatile compounds?
A
Gas chromatography
B
Paper chromatography
C
Thin-layer chromatography
D
Column chromatography only
Q45
Which factor does NOT affect the equilibrium constant of a reaction?
A
Temperature
B
Nature of reaction
C
Catalyst
D
Standard state definition
Q46
During electrolysis of molten NaCl, the product formed at the cathode is:
A
Cl2
B
NaOH
C
Na
D
H2
Q47
Which complex exhibits optical isomerism?
A
[Co(en)3]3+
B
[Co(NH3)6]3+
C
[PtCl4]2−
D
[Ni(CN)4]2−
Q48
Which of the following is an example of a disproportionation reaction?
A
Zn + CuSO4 → ZnSO4 + Cu
B
2H2O2 → 2H2O + O2
C
NaOH + HCl → NaCl + H2O
D
CaCO3 → CaO + CO2
Q49
For a reaction having ΔH < 0 and ΔS < 0, under which condition is the reaction thermodynamically spontaneous?
A
At all temperatures
B
Only at sufficiently high temperature
C
Only at sufficiently low temperature
D
Never at any temperature
Q50
The oxidation number of sulfur in thiosulfate ion, S2O3²−, cannot be assigned as a single value to both sulfur atoms because:
A
Sulfur is always +6
B
The two sulfur atoms occupy chemically different environments
C
Oxygen changes its oxidation state
D
The ion is unstable
Q51
Which polymer is formed by condensation polymerization?
A
Polyethylene
B
PVC
C
Nylon-6,6
D
Polystyrene
Q52
The major product of nitration of benzene is formed through attack by:
A
NO2−
B
NO2+
C
NH4+
D
NO+
Q53
Which complex is expected to show the strongest Jahn-Teller distortion?
A
[Zn(H2O)6]2+
B
[Cu(H2O)6]2+
C
[Sc(H2O)6]3+
D
[Ca(H2O)6]2+
Q54
Which transition-metal ion is generally colorless in aqueous solution?
A
Ti3+
B
V2+
C
Cu2+
D
Sc3+
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